Best Environmental Engineering Multiple choice Questions and Answers
1. Assertion A : The consumption of water increases with increase in the distribution pressure.
Reason R : Higher distribution pressure causes more loss and waste of water.
Select your answer according to the coding system given below
a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
c) A is true but R is false.
d) A is false but R is true.
Ans: a
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2. The per capita consumption of a locality is affected by
i) climatic conditions
ii) quality of water
iii) distribution pressure
The correct answer is
a) only (i)
b) both (i) and (ii)
c) both (i) and (iii)
d) all (i), (ii) and (iii)
Ans: d
3. Which of the following causes a decrease in per capita consumption ?
a) use of metering system
b) good quality of water
c) better standard of living of the people
d) hotter climate
Ans:a
4. The hourly variation factor is usually taken as
a) 1.5
b) 1.8
c) 2.0
d) 2.7
Ans:a
5. If the average daily consumption of a city is 100,000 m3, the maximum daily consumption on peak hourly demand will be
a) 100000m3
b) 150000m3
c) 180000m3
d) 270000 m3
Ans:d
6. The distribution mains are designed for
a) maximum daily demand
b) maximum hourly demand
c) average daily demand
d) maximum hourly demand on maximum day
Ans:d
7. As compared to geometrical increase method of forecasting population, arithmetical increase method gives
a) lesser value
b) higher value
c) same value
d) accurate value
Ans:a
8. The population of a town in three consecutive years are 5000, 7000 and 8400 respectively. The population of the town in the fourth consecutive year according to geometrical increase method is
a) 9500
b) 9800
c) 10100
d) 10920
Ans:d
9. The suitable method of forecasting population for a young and rapidly increasing city is
a) arithmetical increase method
b) geometrical increase method
c) incremental increase method
d) graphical method
Ans:b
10. The depression of water table in a well due to pumping will be maximum
a) at a distance R from the well
b) close to the well
c) at a distance R/2 from the well
d) none of the above
where R is the radius of influence
Ans:b
11. The devices which are installed for drawing water from the sources are called
a) aquifers
b) aquiclude
c) filters
d) intakes
Ans:d
12. Select the correct relationship between porosity (N), specific yield (y) and specific retention (R)
a) N = y + R
b) y = N + R
c) R = N + y
d) R > (N + y)
Ans:a
13. The type of valve, which is provided on the suction pipe in a tube-well, is
a) air relief valve
b) reflux valve
c) pressure relief valve
d) sluice valve
Ans:b
14. The maximum discharge of a tube-well is about
a) 5 litres/sec
b) 50 litres/sec
c) 500 litres/sec
d) 1000 litres/see
Ans:b
15. As compared to shallow-wells, deep wells have
a) more depth
b) less depth
c) more discharge
d) less discharge
Ans:c
16. Ground water is usually free from
a) suspended impurities
b) dissolved impurities
c) both suspended and dissolved impuri¬ties
d) none of the above
Ans:a
17. The polluted water is one which
a) contains pathogenic bacteria
b) consists of undesirable substances rendering it unfit for drinking and domestic use
c) is safe and suitable for drinking and domestic use
d) is contaminated
Ans:b
18. Which of the following is not a water borne disease ?
a) dysentery
b) cholera
c) typhoid
d) maleria
Ans:d
19. The most common cause of acidity in water is
a) carbon dioxide
b) oxygen
c) hydrogen
d) nitrogen
Ans:a
20. The phenolic compounds in public water supply should not be more than
a) 0.1 ppm
b) 0.01 ppm
c) 0.001 ppm
d) 0.0001 ppm
Ans:c
21. The maximum permissible limit for flouride in drinking water is
a) 0.1 mg/litre
b) 1.5 mg/litre
c) 5 mg/litre
d) 10 mg/litre
Ans:b
22. Standard EDTA (ethylene diamine tetra acetic acid) solution is used to determine the
a) hardness in water
b) turbidity in water
c) dissolved oxygen in water
d) residual chlorine in water
Ans:a
23. If the coliform bacteria is present in a sample of water, then the coliform test to be conducted is
i) presumptive coliform test
ii) confirmed coliform test
iii) completed coliform test The correct answer is
a) only (i)
b) both (i) and (ii)
c) both (i) and (iii)
d) all (i), (ii) and (iii)
Ans:d
24. Alkalinity in water is expressed as milli-grams per litre in terms of equivalent
a) calcium carbonate
b) magnesium carbonate
c) sodium carbonate
d) calcium hydroxide
Ans:a
26. Which of the following values of pH represents a stronger acid?
a) 2
b) 5
c) 7
d) 10
Ans:a
27. Turbidity is measured on
a) standard silica scale
b) standard cobalt scale
c) standard platinum scale
d) platinum cobalt scale
Ans:a
28. On standard silica scale, the turbidity in drinking water should be limited to
a) 10 ppm
b) 20 ppm
c) 30 ppm
d) 50 ppm
Ans:a
29. Residual chlorine in water is determined by
a) starch iodide method
b) orthotolidine method
c) both (a) and (b)
d) none of the above
Ans:c
30. Orthotolidine test is used for determination of
a) dissolved oxygen
b) residual chlorine
c) biochemical oxygen demand
d) dose of coagulant
Ans:b
31. If the total hardness of water is greater than its total alkalinity, the carbonate hardness will be equal to
a) total alkalinity
b) total hardness
c) total hardness - total alkalinity
d) non carbonate hardness
Ans:a
32. The amount of residual chlorine left in public water supply for safety against pathogenic bacteria is about
a) 0.01 to 0.05 ppm
b) 0.05 to 0.5 ppm
c) 0.5 to 1.0 ppm
d) 1.0 to 5.0 ppm
Ans:b
33. The dissolved oxygen level in natural unpolluted waters at normal temperature is found to be of the order of
a) 1 mg/litre
b) 10 mg/litre
c) 100 mg/litre
d) 1000 mg/litre
Ans:b
34. The velocity of flow of water in a sedimentation tank is about
a) 5 to 10 cm/sec.
b) 15 to 30 cm/sec.
c) 15 to 30 cm/minute
d) 15 to 30 cm/hour
Ans:c
35. The length of rectangular sedimentation tank should not be more than
a) B
b) 2B
c) 4B
d) 8B
where B is the width of the tank
Ans:c
36. The overflow rate for plain sedimentation tanks is about
a) 500 to 750 litres/hour/ m2
b) 1000 to 1250 litres/hour/ m2
c) 1250 to 1500 litres/hour/m2
d) 1500 to 2000 litres/hour/m2
Ans:a
37. Percentage of bacterial load that can be removed from water by the process of plain sedimentation is about
a) 10 to 25
b) 50
c) 75
d) 100
Ans:c
38. The settling velocity of a particle in a sedimentation tank depends on
a) depth of tank
b) surface area of tank
c) both depth and surface area of tank
d) none of the above
Ans:b
39. The settling velocity of a particle in a sedimentation tank increases if
a) particle size is decreased
b) the surface area of tank is increased
c) the depth of tank is decreased
d) none of the above
Ans:d
40. For a given discharge, the efficiency of sedimentation tank can be increased by
a) increasing the depth of tank
b) decreasing the depth of tank
c) increasing the surface area of tank
d) decreasing the surface area of tank
Ans:c
41. The detention period and overflow rate respectively for plain sedimentation as compared to sedimentation with coagulation are generally
a) less and more
b) less and less
c) more and less
d) more and more
Ans:c
42. The amount of coagulant needed for coagulation of water increases with
i) increase in turbidity of water
ii) decrease in turbidity of water
iii) increase in temperature of water
iv) decrease in temperature of water
The correct answer is
a) (i) and (ii)
b) (i)and(iv)
c) (ii) and (iii)
d) (ii) and (iv)
Ans:b
43. Alum as a coagulant is found to be most effective when pH range of water is
a) 2 to 4
b) 4 to 6
c) 6 to 8
d) 8 to 10
Ans:c
44. The detention period in coagulation tanks is usually kept as
a) 1 to 2 minutes
b) 30 to 45 minutes
c) 2 to 6 hours
d) 2 to 6 days
Ans:c
45. The alum, when added as a coagulant in water
a) does not require alkalinity in water for flocculation
b) does not affect pH value of water
c) increases pH value of water
d) decreases pH value of water
Ans:d
46. The chemical most commonly used to increase speed of sedimentation of sewage is
a) sulphuric acid
b) copper sulphate
c) lime
d) sodium permanganate
Ans:c
47. In water treatment, rapid gravity filters are adopted to remove
a) dissolved organic substances
b) dissolved solids and dissolved gases
c) floating solids and dissolved inorganic solids
d) bacteria and colloidal solids
Ans:d
48. The rate of filtration in slow sand filters in million litres per day per hectare is about
a) 50 to 60
b) 100 to 150
c) 500 to 600
d) 1400 to 1500
Ans:a
49. The effective size of sand particles used in slow sand filters is
a) 0.25 to 0.35 mm
b) 0.35 to 0.60 mm
c) 0.60 to 1.00 mm
d) 1.00 to 1.80 mm
Ans:a
50. As compared to rapid sand filters, slow sand filters give
i) slower filtration rate
ii) higher filtration rate
iii) lesser efficiency in removal of bacteria
iv) higher efficiency in removal of bacteria The correct answer is
a) (i) and (ii)
b) (ii) and (iii)
c) (i) and (iv)
d) (ii) and (iv)
Ans:c
51. Assertion A: Slow sand filters are more efficient in removal of bacteria than rapid sand filters.
Reason R : The sand used in slow sand filters is finer than that in rapid sand filters.
Select your answer based on the coding system given below:
a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
c) A is true but R is false.
d) A is false but R is true.
Ans:a
52. Air binding phenomena in rapid sand filters occur due to
a) excessive negative head
b) mud ball formation
c) higher turbidity in the effluent
d) low temperature
Ans:a
53. The percentage of filtered water, which is used for backwashing in rapid sand filters, is about
a) 0.2 to 0.4
b) 0.4 to 1.0
c) 2 to 4
d) 5 to 7
Ans:c
54. Period of cleaning of slow sand filters is about
a) 24 - 48 hours
b) 10-12 days
c) 2-3 months
d) 1-2 year
Ans:c
55. The rate of Alteration of pressure filters is
a) less than that of slow sand filters
b) in between the filtration rate of slow sand filters and rapid sand filters
c) greater than that of rapid sand filters
d) equal to that of slow sand filters
Ans:c
56. Double filtration is used
a) to increase the filtration slow sand filters capacity of
b) to increase the filtration rapid sand filters capacity of
c) for isolated buildings like pools, hotels etc swimming
d) all of the above
Ans:a
57. Cleaning is done by
i) scraping and removal in filters slow sand
ii) back washing in slow sand filters
iii) scraping and removal in filters rapid sand
iv) back washing in rapid sand filters
The correct answer is
a) (i) and (ii)
b) (ii) and (iii)
c) (i) and (iv)
d) (ii) and (iv)
Ans:c
58. Disinfection of water results in
a) removal of turbidity
b) removal of hardness
c) killing of disease bacteria
d) complete sterilisation
Ans:c
59. The disinfection efficiency of chlorine increases by
i) decreasing the time of contact
ii) decreasing the temperature of water
iii) increasing the temperature of water The correct answer is
a) only (i)
b) both (i) and (ii)
c) both (i) and (iii)
d) only (iii)
Ans:d
60. Chlorine demand of water is equal to
a) applied chlorine
b) residual chlorine
c) sum of applied and residual chlorine
d) difference of applied and residual chlorine
Ans:d
61. The process in which the chlorination is done beyond the break point is known as
a) prechlorination
b) post chlorination
c) super chlorination
d) break point chlorination
Ans:c
Dear Readers, Welcome to Environmental Engineering Objective Questions have been designed specially to get you acquainted with the nature of questions you may encounter during your Job interview for the subject of Environmental Engineering MCQs. These objective type Environmental Engineering questions are very important for campus placement test and job interviews. As per my experience good interviewers hardly plan to ask any particular question during your Job interview and these model questions are asked in the online technical test and interview of many IT & Non IT Industries.
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